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Official Pattern Full CBT Mock Test 2 Notice:
Maitreyi College (University of Delhi) non-teaching recruitment test series. Mock Test 2 contains 50 fresh questions (100 Marks) covering General Awareness & DU Profile (Q1–15), Reasoning Ability (Q16–25), Mathematical Ability (Q26–35), and Higher Education Governance, GFR 2017 & DU Rules (Q36–50). Negative marking: -0.5 marks deduction per wrong answer.
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Maitreyi College DU (52 Posts)
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1. Maitreyi College Mock Test 2 Details & Dashboard
Total Questions
50 MCQs
Total Marks
100 Marks
Duration
60 Minutes
Negative Marking
-0.5 Marks
2. CBT Exam Rules & Negative Marking Guidelines
- Question Structure: All 50 objective MCQs are included below. Each correct answer carries +2 marks.
- Negative Marking: Each wrong attempt carries a deduction of -0.5 marks (25% penalty).
- Unattempted Questions: 0 marks awarded for skipped questions.
- Bilingual Medium: Questions are presented in both English and Hindi.
3. Interactive Online CBT Question Paper (Q1 to Q50 Complete)
Read each question carefully and select the correct option. Click "View Answer & Explanation" to verify your answers:
Section A: General Awareness, History & DU Profile (Q1 – Q15)
Q1 Who appoints the Vice-Chancellor of the University of Delhi? / दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय के कुलपति (Vice-Chancellor) की नियुक्ति कौन करता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (Visitor of the University)
Under the Delhi University Act 1922, the Visitor (President of India) appoints the Vice-Chancellor from a panel recommended by a search committee.
Under the Delhi University Act 1922, the Visitor (President of India) appoints the Vice-Chancellor from a panel recommended by a search committee.
Q2 The fundamental duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by which constitutional amendment? / किस संवैधानिक संशोधन द्वारा भारतीय संविधान में मौलिक कर्तव्यों को शामिल किया गया था?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (42nd Amendment Act 1976)
Fundamental duties (Article 51A) were added to Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Fundamental duties (Article 51A) were added to Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q3 In which year was the Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi? / महात्मा गांधी द्वारा भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन किस वर्ष शुरू किया गया था?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (1942)
The Quit India Movement was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee on 8 August 1942.
The Quit India Movement was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee on 8 August 1942.
Q4 Which is the highest peak in South India? / दक्षिण भारत की सबसे ऊँची चोटी कौन-सी है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Anamudi)
Anamudi (2,695 meters), located in the Western Ghats of Kerala, is the highest peak in South India.
Anamudi (2,695 meters), located in the Western Ghats of Kerala, is the highest peak in South India.
Q5 What is the unit of measurement for astronomical distances? / खगोलीय दूरियों को मापने की इकाई क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (Light-year)
A light-year is the distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (approx. 9.46 trillion km).
A light-year is the distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (approx. 9.46 trillion km).
Q6 Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease? / विटामिन C की कमी से कौन-सा रोग होता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (Scurvy)
Scurvy is caused by a lack of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) in the diet, leading to bleeding gums and skin spots.
Scurvy is caused by a lack of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) in the diet, leading to bleeding gums and skin spots.
Q7 Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India on 1st January 2015? / 1 जनवरी 2015 को किस निकाय ने भारत के योजना आयोग का स्थान लिया?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (NITI Aayog)
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) replaced the Planning Commission on January 1, 2015.
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) replaced the Planning Commission on January 1, 2015.
Q8 What is the pH value of pure distilled water at 25°C? / 25°C पर शुद्ध आसुत जल का pH मान क्या होता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (7)
Pure water has a neutral pH of 7 at 25°C.
Pure water has a neutral pH of 7 at 25°C.
Q9 Which city is known as the 'Silicon Valley of India'? / किस शहर को 'भारत की सिलिकॉन वैली' के रूप में जाना जाता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Bengaluru)
Bengaluru is called the Silicon Valley of India because of its role as the nation's leading information technology exporter.
Bengaluru is called the Silicon Valley of India because of its role as the nation's leading information technology exporter.
Q10 Who was the first Law Minister of independent India? / स्वतंत्र भारत के प्रथम कानून मंत्री कौन थे?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar)
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar served as independent India's first Law and Justice Minister.
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar served as independent India's first Law and Justice Minister.
Q11 Panchayati Raj System was first introduced in which state of India? / पंचायती राज व्यवस्था सबसे पहले भारत के किस राज्य में शुरू की गई थी?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (Rajasthan)
Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by PM Jawaharlal Nehru at Nagaur district in Rajasthan on 2nd October 1959.
Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by PM Jawaharlal Nehru at Nagaur district in Rajasthan on 2nd October 1959.
Q12 Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bengal'? / किस नदी को 'बंगाल का शोक' कहा जाता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Damodar River)
Damodar River was historically known as the Sorrow of Bengal due to its devastating floods.
Damodar River was historically known as the Sorrow of Bengal due to its devastating floods.
Q13 Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India? / भारत के नियंत्रक एवं महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG) की नियुक्ति कौन करता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (President of India)
The CAG of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 148).
The CAG of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 148).
Q14 Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) under NEP 2020 is established by which authority? / NEP 2020 के तहत एकाडेमिक बैंक ऑफ क्रेडिट्स (ABC) की स्थापना किस प्राधिकरण द्वारा की गई है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (UGC)
UGC established the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) under UGC (Establishment and Operationalization of Academic Bank of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations 2021.
UGC established the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) under UGC (Establishment and Operationalization of Academic Bank of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations 2021.
Q15 National Science Day in India is celebrated to commemorate the discovery of which phenomenon? / भारत में राष्ट्रीय विज्ञान दिवस किस घटना की खोज की याद में मनाया जाता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (Raman Effect)
National Science Day is celebrated on 28th February to mark the discovery of the Raman Effect by Sir C.V. Raman in 1928.
National Science Day is celebrated on 28th February to mark the discovery of the Raman Effect by Sir C.V. Raman in 1928.
Section B: Reasoning Ability & Mental Aptitude (Q16 – Q25)
Q16 In a certain code, 'TEACHER' is written as 'VGCEJFT'. How is 'STUDENT' written in that code? / एक निश्चित कूट में 'TEACHER' को 'VGCEJFT' लिखा जाता है। उसी कूट में 'STUDENT' को कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (UVWFGPV)
Pattern: Each letter is shifted +2. S+2=U, T+2=V, U+2=W, D+2=F, E+2=G, N+2=P, T+2=V.
Pattern: Each letter is shifted +2. S+2=U, T+2=V, U+2=W, D+2=F, E+2=G, N+2=P, T+2=V.
Q17 Find the missing number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ? / लुप्त संख्या ज्ञात करें: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (42)
Differences are consecutive even numbers: +4, +6, +8, +10, +12. So $30 + 12 = 42$.
Differences are consecutive even numbers: +4, +6, +8, +10, +12. So $30 + 12 = 42$.
Q18 Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, 'He is the son of the only son of my grandfather.' How is the man in the photograph related to the woman? / एक तस्वीर की ओर इशारा करते हुए एक महिला कहती है, 'वह मेरे दादाजी के इकलौते बेटे का बेटा है।' तस्वीर वाला व्यक्ति उस महिला से कैसे संबंधित है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (Brother)
Only son of grandfather = Father. Son of father = Brother.
Only son of grandfather = Father. Son of father = Brother.
Q19 A person starts walking West, turns left, then turns right, and finally turns left. In which direction is he walking now? / एक व्यक्ति पश्चिम की ओर चलना शुरू करता है, बाएँ मुड़ता है, फिर दाएँ मुड़ता है, और अंत में बाएँ मुड़ता है। अब वह किस दिशा में चल रहा है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (South)
Start West -> Left (South) -> Right (West) -> Left (South). He is facing South.
Start West -> Left (South) -> Right (West) -> Left (South). He is facing South.
Q20 Find the odd one out: 64, 125, 216, 343, 512, 720 / विषम का चयन करें: 64, 125, 216, 343, 512, 720
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: D (720)
All numbers are perfect cubes ($4^3, 5^3, 6^3, 7^3, 8^3$), except 720 (cube of 9 is 729).
All numbers are perfect cubes ($4^3, 5^3, 6^3, 7^3, 8^3$), except 720 (cube of 9 is 729).
Q21 Statements: All cats are dogs. All dogs are animals. Conclusion: (I) All cats are animals. (II) Some animals are dogs. / कथन: सभी बिल्लियाँ कुत्ते हैं। सभी कुत्ते जानवर हैं। निष्कर्ष: (I) सभी बिल्लियाँ जानवर हैं। (II) कुछ जानवर कुत्ते हैं।
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (Both I and II follow)
Cat $\subset$ Dog $\subset$ Animal. Therefore, all cats are animals (I) and some animals are dogs (II) are both true.
Cat $\subset$ Dog $\subset$ Animal. Therefore, all cats are animals (I) and some animals are dogs (II) are both true.
Q22 Arrange in meaningful order: (1) Exam (2) Job (3) Application (4) Interview (5) Advertisement / सार्थक क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें: (1) परीक्षा (2) नौकरी (3) आवेदन (4) साक्षात्कार (5) विज्ञापन
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (5, 3, 1, 4, 2)
Sequence: Advertisement (5) -> Application (3) -> Exam (1) -> Interview (4) -> Job (2).
Sequence: Advertisement (5) -> Application (3) -> Exam (1) -> Interview (4) -> Job (2).
Q23 If 1st January 2024 was a Monday, what day of the week was 31st December 2024? / यदि 1 जनवरी 2024 को सोमवार था, तो 31 दिसंबर 2024 को सप्ताह का कौन-सा दिन था?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Tuesday)
2024 is a leap year (366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days). A leap year ends on the day after the day it began. Monday + 1 = Tuesday.
2024 is a leap year (366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days). A leap year ends on the day after the day it began. Monday + 1 = Tuesday.
Q24 In a class of 45 students, A ranks 15th from the top. What is A's rank from the bottom? / 45 छात्रों की एक कक्षा में A का स्थान ऊपर से 15वाँ है। नीचे से A का स्थान क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (31st)
Rank from bottom = Total + 1 - Rank from top = $45 + 1 - 15 = 31$.
Rank from bottom = Total + 1 - Rank from top = $45 + 1 - 15 = 31$.
Q25 Clock reads 3:00 PM. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand? / घड़ी में अपराह्न 3:00 बजे हैं। घंटे की सुई और मिनट की सुई के बीच का कोण क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (90°)
At 3 o'clock, the hour hand is at 3 and minute hand is at 12. Each hour mark is $360°/12 = 30°$. Angle = $3 \times 30° = 90°$.
At 3 o'clock, the hour hand is at 3 and minute hand is at 12. Each hour mark is $360°/12 = 30°$. Angle = $3 \times 30° = 90°$.
Section C: Mathematical Ability & Quantitative Aptitude (Q26 – Q35)
Q26 If the ratio of length and breadth of a rectangle is 5:3 and its perimeter is 64 cm, what is its area? / यदि एक आयत की लंबाई और चौड़ाई का अनुपात 5:3 है और इसका परिमाप 64 सेमी है, तो इसका क्षेत्रफल क्या होगा?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (240 sq cm)
Perimeter = $2(5x + 3x) = 16x = 64 \Rightarrow x = 4$. Length = 20 cm, Breadth = 12 cm. Area = $20 \times 12 = 240 \text{ cm}^2$.
Perimeter = $2(5x + 3x) = 16x = 64 \Rightarrow x = 4$. Length = 20 cm, Breadth = 12 cm. Area = $20 \times 12 = 240 \text{ cm}^2$.
Q27 A car covers a distance of 300 km in 5 hours. What is its speed in m/s? / एक कार 5 घंटे में 300 किमी की दूरी तय करती है। इसकी गति मीटर/सेकंड में क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (16.67 m/s)
Speed in km/h = $300 / 5 = 60$ km/h. Speed in m/s = $60 \times (5/18) = 50/3 \approx 16.67$ m/s.
Speed in km/h = $300 / 5 = 60$ km/h. Speed in m/s = $60 \times (5/18) = 50/3 \approx 16.67$ m/s.
Q28 Find the simple interest on ₹5,000 at 8% per annum for 3 years. / ₹5,000 पर 8% वार्षिक दर से 3 वर्ष का साधारण ब्याज ज्ञात करें।
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (₹1,200)
$\text{SI} = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100} = \frac{5000 \times 8 \times 3}{100} = ₹1,200$.
$\text{SI} = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100} = \frac{5000 \times 8 \times 3}{100} = ₹1,200$.
Q29 If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, find the ratio A:B:C. / यदि A:B = 2:3 और B:C = 4:5 है, तो अनुपात A:B:C ज्ञात करें।
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: A (8:12:15)
Make B equal: $A:B = 8:12$ and $B:C = 12:15$. So $A:B:C = 8:12:15$.
Make B equal: $A:B = 8:12$ and $B:C = 12:15$. So $A:B:C = 8:12:15$.
Q30 The population of a town increases by 10% annually. If the current population is 20,000, what will it be after 2 years? / एक कस्बे की जनसंख्या में प्रतिवर्ष 10% की वृद्धि होती है। यदि वर्तमान जनसंख्या 20,000 है, तो 2 वर्ष बाद यह कितनी होगी?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (24,200)
Population after 2 years = $20000 \times (1.1)^2 = 20000 \times 1.21 = 24,200$.
Population after 2 years = $20000 \times (1.1)^2 = 20000 \times 1.21 = 24,200$.
Q31 If $\frac{x}{5} = \frac{y}{8}$, then $(x+5) : (y+8)$ is equal to: / यदि $\frac{x}{5} = \frac{y}{8}$ है, तो $(x+5) : (y+8)$ किसके बराबर है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (5:8)
Let $x=5k$ and $y=8k$. Then $\frac{5k+5}{8k+8} = \frac{5(k+1)}{8(k+1)} = \frac{5}{8}$.
Let $x=5k$ and $y=8k$. Then $\frac{5k+5}{8k+8} = \frac{5(k+1)}{8(k+1)} = \frac{5}{8}$.
Q32 A tank can be filled by Pipe A in 10 hours and emptied by Pipe B in 15 hours. If both pipes are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank? / एक टंकी को पाइप A द्वारा 10 घंटे में भरा जा सकता है और पाइप B द्वारा 15 घंटे में खाली किया जा सकता है। यदि दोनों पाइप एक साथ खोल दिए जाएं, तो टंकी भरने में कितना समय लगेगा?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (30 Hours)
Net filling rate per hour = $\frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3-2}{30} = \frac{1}{30}$. Tank fills in 30 hours.
Net filling rate per hour = $\frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3-2}{30} = \frac{1}{30}$. Tank fills in 30 hours.
Q33 What is the median of the data set: 12, 7, 15, 9, 21, 18, 11? / आँकड़े समुच्चय का माध्यक (Median) क्या है: 12, 7, 15, 9, 21, 18, 11?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (12)
Arrange in ascending order: 7, 9, 11, 12, 15, 18, 21. Middle (4th) term is 12.
Arrange in ascending order: 7, 9, 11, 12, 15, 18, 21. Middle (4th) term is 12.
Q34 By selling an item for ₹540, a trader loses 10%. At what price should he sell it to gain 20%? / एक वस्तु को ₹540 में बेचने पर एक व्यापारी को 10% की हानि होती है। 20% लाभ प्राप्त करने के लिए उसे इसे किस मूल्य पर बेचना चाहिए?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (₹720)
CP = $540 / 0.9 = 600$. Target SP for 20% profit = $600 \times 1.2 = ₹720$.
CP = $540 / 0.9 = 600$. Target SP for 20% profit = $600 \times 1.2 = ₹720$.
Q35 Evaluate: $\sqrt{0.0009}$ = ? / मान ज्ञात करें: $\sqrt{0.0009}$ = ?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (0.03)
$\sqrt{9/10000} = 3/100 = 0.03$.
$\sqrt{9/10000} = 3/100 = 0.03$.
Section D: Higher Education Governance, GFR 2017 & DU Rules (Q36 – Q50)
Q36 Under Central Civil Services (CCS) Leave Rules, how many days of Half Pay Leave (HPL) are credited per year of completed service? / केंद्रीय सिविल सेवाएं (CCS) छुट्टी नियमों के तहत, पूर्ण सेवा के प्रति वर्ष कितने दिनों का अर्ध वेतन अवकाश (HPL) जमा किया जाता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (20 Days)
HPL is credited at the rate of 20 days for each completed year of service (credited in two installments of 10 days each on 1st Jan & 1st July).
HPL is credited at the rate of 20 days for each completed year of service (credited in two installments of 10 days each on 1st Jan & 1st July).
Q37 Under CCS (CCA) Rules 1965, which of the following is categorized as a MAJOR Penalty? / CCS (CCA) नियम 1965 के तहत, निम्नलिखित में से किसे मुख्य शास्ति (MAJOR Penalty) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (Dismissal from Service)
Under Rule 11 of CCS (CCA) Rules, Dismissal, Removal, and Reduction to lower grade/post are Major Penalties, whereas Censure and Withholding increment are Minor Penalties.
Under Rule 11 of CCS (CCA) Rules, Dismissal, Removal, and Reduction to lower grade/post are Major Penalties, whereas Censure and Withholding increment are Minor Penalties.
Q38 Under GFR 2017 Rule 149, mandatory procurement through GeM portal is prescribed for goods & services. Direct purchase on GeM is allowed up to what amount? / GFR 2017 नियम 149 के तहत GeM पोर्टल पर सीधे खरीद (Direct Purchase) किस राशि तक की जा सकती है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (₹25,000)
On GeM portal, direct purchase of goods up to ₹25,000 is permitted without comparison.
On GeM portal, direct purchase of goods up to ₹25,000 is permitted without comparison.
Q39 Under the RTI Act 2005, what is the maximum penalty per day that can be imposed on a CPIO for unreasonable delay? / RTI अधिनियम 2005 के तहत अकारण देरी के लिए CPIO पर प्रति दिन अधिकतम कितना जुर्माना लगाया जा सकता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (₹250 per day)
Under Section 20(1) of RTI Act 2005, penalty of ₹250 per day up to a maximum limit of ₹25,000 can be imposed on defaulting CPIO.
Under Section 20(1) of RTI Act 2005, penalty of ₹250 per day up to a maximum limit of ₹25,000 can be imposed on defaulting CPIO.
Q40 What is the maximum limit of total penalty under Section 20(1) of the RTI Act 2005? / RTI अधिनियम 2005 की धारा 20(1) के तहत कुल जुर्माने की अधिकतम सीमा क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (₹25,000)
The total penalty imposed on CPIO for delay under Section 20(1) cannot exceed ₹25,000.
The total penalty imposed on CPIO for delay under Section 20(1) cannot exceed ₹25,000.
Q41 Under CCS (Leave) Rules, what is the maximum paternity leave granted to a male employee? / CCS छुट्टी नियमों के तहत पुरुष कर्मचारी को अधिकतम कितना पितृत्व अवकाश (Paternity Leave) प्रदान किया जाता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (15 Days)
Male government servants with less than two surviving children may be granted Paternity Leave of 15 days.
Male government servants with less than two surviving children may be granted Paternity Leave of 15 days.
Q42 Under GFR 2017, what is PAC (Proprietary Article Certificate) purchase? / GFR 2017 के तहत PAC (प्रोपराइटी आर्टिकल सर्टिफिकेट) खरीद क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Single tender purchase when only one manufacturer makes the required store)
Rule 166 of GFR 2017 provides for single tender enquiry under Proprietary Article Certificate (PAC) when items are manufactured solely by one firm.
Rule 166 of GFR 2017 provides for single tender enquiry under Proprietary Article Certificate (PAC) when items are manufactured solely by one firm.
Q43 Which ordinance of Delhi University deals with Maintenance of Discipline among Students? / दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय का कौन-सा अध्यादेश (Ordinance) छात्रों के बीच अनुशासन बनाए रखने से संबंधित है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Ordinance XV-B)
Ordinance XV-B of DU relates to the maintenance of discipline among students of the University.
Ordinance XV-B of DU relates to the maintenance of discipline among students of the University.
Q44 Which ordinance of Delhi University relates to Prohibition of and Punishment for Ragging? / दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय का कौन-सा अध्यादेश रैगिंग के प्रतिषेध और सजा से संबंधित है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (Ordinance XV-C)
Ordinance XV-C specifies rules regarding the prohibition of and punishment for ragging in Delhi University.
Ordinance XV-C specifies rules regarding the prohibition of and punishment for ragging in Delhi University.
Q45 Under Central Government rules, what is the age of superannuation (retirement) for non-teaching staff in Delhi University? / केंद्र सरकार के नियमों के तहत, दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय में गैर-शिक्षण कर्मचारियों के लिए सेवानिवृत्ति (Superannuation) की आयु क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (60 Years)
The retirement age of superannuation for Central Government / DU non-teaching employees is 60 years.
The retirement age of superannuation for Central Government / DU non-teaching employees is 60 years.
Q46 Under UGC regulations, NAAC accreditation evaluates higher education institutions on how many core criteria? / UGC नियमों के तहत, NAAC मूल्यांकन उच्च शिक्षा संस्थानों का कितने मुख्य मानदंडों (Core Criteria) पर मूल्यांकन करता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (7 Criteria)
NAAC evaluates institutions on 7 higher education criteria including Curricular Aspects, Teaching-Learning, Research, Infrastructure, and Governance.
NAAC evaluates institutions on 7 higher education criteria including Curricular Aspects, Teaching-Learning, Research, Infrastructure, and Governance.
Q47 Under CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964, what is the general rule regarding joining political parties by a government servant? / CCS (आचरण) नियम 1964 के तहत, सरकारी कर्मचारी द्वारा राजनीतिक दलों में शामिल होने के संबंध में क्या सामान्य नियम है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Strictly prohibited)
Rule 5 of CCS (Conduct) Rules strictly prohibits government employees from being a member of or taking part in any political party or political movement.
Rule 5 of CCS (Conduct) Rules strictly prohibits government employees from being a member of or taking part in any political party or political movement.
Q48 What is the maximum period for which Child Care Leave (CCL) can be granted to a female employee during her entire service? / महिला कर्मचारी को उसकी पूरी सेवा के दौरान अधिकतम कितनी अवधि के लिए बाल देखभाल अवकाश (CCL) प्रदान किया जा सकता है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: C (730 Days)
Female government employees are eligible for Child Care Leave for a maximum period of 730 days during their entire service for taking care of up to two eldest surviving children.
Female government employees are eligible for Child Care Leave for a maximum period of 730 days during their entire service for taking care of up to two eldest surviving children.
Q49 Under GFR 2017, what is the threshold limit for Advertised Tender Enquiry (Open Tender)? / GFR 2017 के तहत विज्ञापित निविदा पूछपाछ (Open Tender) के लिए सीमा रेखा मूल्य क्या है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Above ₹25 Lakhs)
Rule 161 of GFR 2017 states that Advertised Tender Enquiry should be used for procurement of goods of estimated value of ₹25 Lakhs and above.
Rule 161 of GFR 2017 states that Advertised Tender Enquiry should be used for procurement of goods of estimated value of ₹25 Lakhs and above.
Q50 Who is the Disciplinary Authority for Group 'C' staff in a Delhi University College? / दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय कॉलेज में ग्रुप 'सी' कर्मचारियों के लिए अनुशासनिक प्राधिकारी (Disciplinary Authority) कौन है?
View Answer & Explanation
Correct Option: B (Principal / Governing Body of the College)
The Governing Body / Principal of the College is the designated appointing and disciplinary authority for college non-teaching staff.
The Governing Body / Principal of the College is the designated appointing and disciplinary authority for college non-teaching staff.
4. Complete Official Answer Key Table (Q1–Q50)
| Q. No. | Correct Answer | Subject Category |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | A (Visitor of the University) | DU Administration |
| Q2 | A (42nd Amendment Act 1976) | Indian Polity |
| Q3 | C (1942) | Indian History |
| Q4 | B (Anamudi) | Indian Geography |
| Q5 | A (Light-year) | General Science |
| Q6 | C (Scurvy) | General Science |
| Q7 | B (NITI Aayog) | Indian Economy |
| Q8 | C (7) | General Science |
| Q9 | B (Bengaluru) | General Awareness |
| Q10 | B (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar) | Indian History |
| Q11 | A (Rajasthan) | Indian Polity |
| Q12 | B (Damodar River) | Indian Geography |
| Q13 | B (President of India) | Indian Polity |
| Q14 | B (UGC) | Education Governance |
| Q15 | A (Raman Effect) | Important Events |
| Q16 | C (UVWFGPV) | Reasoning (Coding-Decoding) |
| Q17 | B (42) | Reasoning (Number Series) |
| Q18 | A (Brother) | Reasoning (Blood Relations) |
| Q19 | B (South) | Reasoning (Direction Test) |
| Q20 | D (720) | Reasoning (Classification) |
| Q21 | C (Both I and II follow) | Reasoning (Syllogism) |
| Q22 | A (5, 3, 1, 4, 2) | Reasoning (Logical Sequence) |
| Q23 | B (Tuesday) | Reasoning (Calendar) |
| Q24 | B (31st) | Reasoning (Ranking) |
| Q25 | C (90°) | Reasoning (Clock Angle) |
| Q26 | B (240 sq cm) | Math (Mensuration) |
| Q27 | C (16.67 m/s) | Math (Speed & Distance) |
| Q28 | B (₹1,200) | Math (Simple Interest) |
| Q29 | A (8:12:15) | Math (Ratio & Proportion) |
| Q30 | C (24,200) | Math (Percentage Increase) |
| Q31 | B (5:8) | Math (Algebraic Ratio) |
| Q32 | C (30 Hours) | Math (Pipes & Cisterns) |
| Q33 | B (12) | Math (Statistics) |
| Q34 | C (₹720) | Math (Profit & Loss) |
| Q35 | B (0.03) | Math (Square Roots) |
| Q36 | C (20 Days) | CCS Leave Rules |
| Q37 | C (Dismissal from Service) | CCS (CCA) Rules |
| Q38 | B (₹25,000) | GFR 2017 GeM Rules |
| Q39 | B (₹250 per day) | RTI Act Penalties |
| Q40 | B (₹25,000) | RTI Act Penalties |
| Q41 | C (15 Days) | CCS Leave Rules |
| Q42 | B (Single tender purchase when only one manufacturer makes the required store) | GFR 2017 Procurement |
| Q43 | B (Ordinance XV-B) | DU Ordinances |
| Q44 | C (Ordinance XV-C) | DU Ordinances |
| Q45 | B (60 Years) | Service Rules |
| Q46 | B (7 Criteria) | Higher Education Quality |
| Q47 | B (Strictly prohibited) | CCS Conduct Rules |
| Q48 | C (730 Days) | CCS Leave Rules |
| Q49 | B (Above ₹25 Lakhs) | GFR 2017 Procurement |
| Q50 | B (Principal / Governing Body of the College) | DU College Governance |
5. Direct Links to Recruitment Pillar, Syllabus, Exam Pattern & Mock Test 1
Access complete recruitment details, official PDF notices, topic-wise syllabus, and stage-wise exam scheme:
6. Frequently Asked Questions (10 FAQs)
Maitreyi College Mock Test 2 contains 50 fresh MCQs (100 Marks) following official DU exam patterns.
Yes. Each correct answer carries +2 marks and each wrong answer deducts -0.5 marks.
General Awareness, Reasoning Ability, Mathematical Aptitude, and Higher Education Governance (DU Act 1922, GFR 2017, CCS Rules).
You can attempt Maitreyi College Non-Teaching Mock Test 1 on our portal.