IBPS RRB PO 2026 – Full Prelims Mock Test 4 (Officer Scale-I)
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IBPS RRB PO 2026 Full Prelims Mock Test 4 45 Mins Timer | 80 Questions

Interactive Instructions: Attempt this advanced mixed difficulty paper focusing on puzzles, arithmetic speed, and DI. Select your choices, watch the live 45-minute countdown, and click "Submit Test & Check Performance" to evaluate your net score (-0.25 penalty) and step-by-step solutions!

IBPS RRB PO Mock Test 4 2026 Full Prelims Paper
IBPS RRB PO 2026: Full Prelims Mock Test 4 (80 Questions, 80 Marks, 45 Minutes)
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Part A: Reasoning Ability 40 0 0 0 0
Part B: Quantitative Aptitude 40 0 0 0 0
💡 Review Note: Correct choices are highlighted in Green and wrong choices in Red. Detailed solutions for all 80 questions are unlocked below!
IBPS RRB PO Reasoning Mock Test 4 40 Questions
Part A: Reasoning Ability (40 Questions, 40 Marks, 25 Minutes)

PART A – REASONING ABILITY (Q1–Q40)

40 Questions | 25 Mins

Q1. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sit in a row facing north. P is 3rd left of T. Q is immediately right of P. R is 2nd right of T. S is at extreme left. U is immediately left of V. W is not neighbor of Q. Who sits immediately right of P?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Row order left to right: S - P - Q - U - V - T - W - R. Q sits immediately right of P.

Q2. Who sits second to the right of T?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: R sits 2nd to the right of T.

Q3. Who sits at the extreme left end?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: S sits at the extreme left end.

Q4. How many persons sit between P and R?

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Correct Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Persons between P and R: Q, U, V, T, W (total 5 persons).

Q5. Who sits immediately left of V?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: U sits immediately left of V.

Q6. Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on floors 1 to 7. A lives on Floor 4. B lives immediately above C. D lives below A but above E. F lives above A. G lives on Floor 7. Who lives immediately below A?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Floor order (7 to 1): 7:G, 6:F, 5:B, 4:A, 3:C / D, 2:D, 1:E. D lives on Floor 3 immediately below A.

Q7. Who lives on the top floor (Floor 7)?

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Correct Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: G lives on Floor 7.

Q8. How many persons live between A and G?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Floors 5 (B/F) & 6 (F/B) live between A (Floor 4) and G (Floor 7). Total = 2 persons.

Q9. Who lives immediately above C?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: B lives immediately above C.

Q10. Who lives below D?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: E and C live below D.

Q11. Find the odd one out: 64, 81, 100, 121, 143

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Correct Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: 143 is not a perfect square, whereas 64 (8²), 81 (9²), 100 (10²), 121 (11²) are squares.

Q12. If RURAL → SVSBM, then BANK → ?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: +1 letter shift: B→C, A→B, N→O, K→L = CBOL.

Q13. A person walks 15 m North, turns Right 10 m, turns Right 15 m. Distance from start?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: North 15m and South 15m cancel out. Position = 10 m East.

Q14. Pointing towards a woman, Rahul says, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather." Relation?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Grandfather's only son is Rahul's father. Father's daughter is Rahul's Sister.

Q15. Find the missing number: 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Pattern ×2 + 1. 127 × 2 + 1 = 255.

Q16. Statements: All officers are employees. Some employees are graduates. Conclusions: I. Some officers are graduates. II. Some employees are officers.

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: All officers are employees implies Some employees are officers. Only II follows.

Q17. If P > Q ≥ R = S < T, which statement is definitely true?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: P > Q and Q ≥ S ⇒ P > S is definitely true.

Q18. Find the next number: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Pattern ×2 + 1. 79 × 2 + 1 = 159.

Q19. If MANGO → NBOHP, then GRAPE → ?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: +1 shift: G→H, R→S, A→B, P→Q, E→F = HSBQF.

Q20. Arrange REGIONAL alphabetically. Which letter is sixth?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Alphabetical: A, E, G, I, L, N, O, R. 6th letter = N / O.

Q21. Sequence: 7 B 4 K 9 P 3 A 6 R 2 T 8 M 5 Q. Which element is 3rd to right of P?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: P is pos 6. Right 3 steps: 3(7), A(8), 6(9). 3rd to right is A.

Q22. How many numbers are immediately preceded by a letter?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: B-4, K-9, P-3, A-6, R-2, T-8, M-5. Total = 7 numbers.

Q23. Which element is exactly midway between K and R?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Elements between K and R: 9, P, 3, A, 6. Middle element is P.

Q24. If all letters are removed, which number is 5th from left?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Numbers: 7, 4, 9, 3, 6, 2, 8, 5. 5th number is 6 / 2.

Q25. How many letters are between B and T?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Letters between B and T: K, P, A, R (total 4 letters).

Q26. Candidate is 18th from left and 17th from right. Total candidates?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Total = 18 + 17 - 1 = 34.

Q27. If 1 Jan is Monday, what day will 1 Feb be in a non-leap year (31 days)?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 31 ÷ 7 = 3 odd days. Monday + 3 = Thursday.

Q28. Find next pair: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: 1st letter +2 (I), 2nd letter -2 (R) = IR.

Q29. Find the odd pair: 5:25, 6:36, 7:49, 8:64, 9:72

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Correct Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: 9² = 81, not 72.

Q30. If + means ×, − means +, and × means −, find: 7 + 4 − 5 × 3

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 7 × 4 + 5 − 3 = 28 + 5 − 3 = 30.

Q31. A > B, C > A, D < B, E > C. Who is shortest?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Height order: E > C > A > B > D. D is shortest.

Q32. Which word CANNOT be formed from MANAGEMENT?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: GAME requires "O" which is not present in MANAGEMENT.

Q33. Arrange BANKER alphabetically. Which letter is third?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Alphabetical: A, B, E, K, N, R. 3rd letter = E.

Q34. A clock shows 4:00. Angle between hands?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: 4 × 30° = 120°.

Q35. Next term: D4, F6, H8, J10, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: L12.

Q36. Series: 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Differences +5, +10, +20, +40, +80. 78 + 80 = 158.

Q37. Person faces South. Turns left (East), right (South), right (West). Direction?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Final facing direction is West.

Q38. If CASH → DBTI, then LOAN → ?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: +1 shift: LOAN → MPBO.

Q39. Person faces East. Turns right (South), left (East), left (North). Direction?

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Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Final facing direction is North.

Q40. Missing letter: C (+3) F (+4) J (+5) O (+6) U (+7) ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 21 + 7 = 28th letter = B.
IBPS RRB PO Quantitative Aptitude Mock Test 4 40 Questions
Part B: Quantitative Aptitude (40 Questions, 40 Marks, 20 Minutes)

PART B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Q41–Q80)

40 Questions | 20 Mins

Q41. Simplify: 56 ÷ 7 × 6 + 14 − 12 = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 8 × 6 + 14 − 12 = 48 + 14 − 12 = 50.

Q42. 35% of 600 + 20% of 500 = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 210 + 100 = 310.

Q43. √625 + 17 = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 25 + 17 = 42.

Q44. 3/4 of 280 + 2/5 of 250 = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 210 + 100 = 310.

Q45. 18% of 750 = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 18/100 × 750 = 135.

Q46. Series: 6, 13, 27, 55, 111, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Pattern ×2 + 1. 111 × 2 + 1 = 223.

Q47. Series: 196, 169, 144, 121, ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Squares of 14, 13, 12, 11, 10. 10² = 100.

Q48. Series: 2, 8, 32, 160, 960, ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Multipliers ×4, ×4, ×5, ×6, ×8. 960 × 8 = 7,680.

Q49. Series: 7, 15, 25, 37, 51, ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Differences +8, +10, +12, +14, +16. 51 + 16 = 67.

Q50. Series: 150, 140, 120, 90, 50, ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Differences -10, -20, -30, -40, -50. 50 - 50 = 0.

Q51. A number increased by 25% becomes 750. Original number?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 1.25x = 750 ⇒ x = 600.

Q52. A:B ratio 7:5. If A = 84, B = ?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 84 ÷ 7 × 5 = 60.

Q53. Average of 36, 42, 48, 54, 60 is:

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Middle value of AP = 48.

Q54. CP = ₹2,000, SP = ₹2,500. Profit percentage?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Profit = 500. Profit% = (500 / 2000) × 100 = 25%.

Q55. Marked ₹4,000, discount 15%. Selling price?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Discount = 600. SP = 4000 - 600 = ₹3,400.

Q56. Simple interest on ₹9,000 at 7% p.a. for 2 years:

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: SI = (9000 × 7 × 2) / 100 = ₹1,260.

Q57. Compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% p.a. for 2 years:

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: CI = 10000 × 0.21 = ₹2,100.

Q58. A in 15 days, B in 20 days. Together?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: (15 × 20) / (15 + 20) = 300 / 35 = 8 4/7 days.

Q59. Covers 630 km in 9 hours. Speed?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Speed = 630 / 9 = 70 km/h.

Q60. Travels at 72 km/h. Time to cover 288 km?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Time = 288 / 72 = 4 hours.

Q61. A:B = 3:5, total income ₹72,000. B's income?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: B's share = (5 / 8) × 72000 = ₹45,000.

Q62. ₹2,100 divided in ratio 4:3. A's share?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: A's share = (4 / 7) × 2100 = ₹1,200.

Q63. Milk:Water = 7:3. In 50 L mixture, quantity of milk?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Milk = (7 / 10) × 50 = 35 L.

Q64. Spends 75% of ₹64,000. Savings?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Savings = 25% of 64,000 = ₹16,000.

Q65. 12 books cost ₹960. Cost of 17 books?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 1 book = 80. 17 books = ₹1,360.

Q66. DI: Total loans sanctioned by Branch D (360 + 450)?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 360 + 450 = 810 loans.

Q67. DI: Total loans sanctioned in 2026 across 5 branches (300+350+400+450+390)?

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Total = 1,890.

Q68. DI: Percentage increase in Branch A from 2025 (240) to 2026 (300)?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: (60 / 240) × 100 = 25%.

Q69. DI: Ratio of Branch B 2025 (280) to Branch E 2026 (390)?

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Correct Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: 280 : 390 = 28 : 39 ≈ 14 : 19.

Q70. DI: Difference between total loans in 2025 (1500) and 2026 (1890)?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 1890 - 1500 = 390.

Q71. LCM of 24 and 36 is:

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: LCM(24, 36) = 72.

Q72. HCF of 108 and 144 is:

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Correct Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: HCF(108, 144) = 36.

Q73. Rectangle length 25 cm, breadth 12 cm. Area?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Area = 25 × 12 = 300 cm².

Q74. Square perimeter = 100 cm (side = 25 cm). Area?

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Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Area = 25² = 625 cm².

Q75. If 6x + 18 = 90, x = ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 6x = 72 ⇒ x = 12.

Q76. If 7x = 119, x = ?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: x = 119 / 7 = 17.

Q77. A invests ₹15,000, B ₹25,000 (ratio 3:5). Profit ₹8,000. B's share?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: B's share = (5 / 8) × 8000 = ₹5,000.

Q78. Pipe fills tank in 24 hours. Fraction filled in 6 hours?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 6 / 24 = 1/4.

Q79. Average of 55, 65, 75, 85 and 95 is:

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Middle value of AP = 75.

Q80. Cost ₹3,000 sold at loss of 15%. Selling price?

Unattempted
Correct Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Loss = 450. SP = 3000 - 450 = ₹2,550.
VERIFIED SOLUTION SHEET

Official Answer Key & Solution Guide (Q1–Q80)

Review the complete official Answer Key table below. You can also attempt the test using the interactive player above to generate a personalized accuracy scorecard!

Q. No. Section Official Correct Answer Solution Summary & Explanation
IBPS RRB PO Mock Test 4 Answer Key and Solutions
Official Answer Key: Complete Q1 to Q80 Answer Matrix
IBPS RRB PO Mock Test 4 Target Score Chart
Mock Test 4 Performance Targets & Negative Marking Matrix
Official Resource / Practice Link Action Link
Officer Scale-I, II & III Apply Portal Apply Online (Officers)
IBPS RRB Recruitment 2026 Notification (13,706 Posts) Main Job Post
IBPS RRB PO Prelims Mock Test 1 Mock Test 1
IBPS RRB PO Prelims Mock Test 2 Mock Test 2
IBPS RRB PO Prelims Mock Test 3 Mock Test 3
IBPS RRB PO Prelims Mock Test 5 (Final Level) Mock Test 5
IBPS RRB Syllabus 2026 Complete Guide View Syllabus Guide
IBPS RRB PO Exam Pattern 2026 PO Exam Pattern

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